As we reported late last night here on eWn, New Japan Pro Wrestling has announced that former champion Tetsuya Naito will be leaving the promotion. Naito’s contract expired in January, and he has since been working with NJPW as a free agent. Now, Fightful Select has shared new details about what could be next for the longtime veteran.
Currently, Naito is said to be weighing his options. Multiple sources have indicated that a move to AEW would come as a surprise. While there is no personal issue between Naito and AEW, the report notes that company executives reportedly do not see him as a long-term addition, though occasional appearances haven’t been ruled out.
The 42-year-old star has also been battling a series of injuries in recent years, which have reportedly affected his in-ring performance. Tokyo Sports reported last December that Naito had undergone his fourth eye surgery, a result of superior oblique muscle paralysis.
Naito has been with NJPW since 2006 and boasts an impressive legacy. His accomplishments include holding the IWGP World Heavyweight Championship, IWGP Heavyweight Championship, IWGP Intercontinental Championship, IWGP Junior Heavyweight Tag Team Championship, IWGP Tag Team Championship, and the NEVER Openweight Championship. He also won the prestigious G1 Climax tournament three times, in 2013, 2017, and 2023.
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